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AskPhilosophers - Philosophy Question of the Day

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Ask Philosophers

Saw this mentioned in the Times today and its worth a look.

http://www.askphilosophers.org/

Todays Philosophy Question of the Day questions identity and individual conciousness...

Does the individual consciousness depend on the actual atoms or only on the configuration of the atoms?

Suppose we have mastered cryo-freezing and atom-manipulation technology. We can freeze and unfreeze people at will.

We freeze Sarah. We replace Sarah's atoms one by one. With all atoms replaced, we wake her up. Is it the "same" Sarah? (the same to herself, not just to us).


Whats the answer to the question? Read the philosophers replies....

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Nice site Whirlie, will bookmark it and read it from now on.

Today's one is quite a brainbreaker..... :chin:

It starts off with the assumption that there is such a thing as 'individual consciousness'.....

I am still thinking about that one... :D




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definately a cool site, I have bookmarked i and will be looking in everyday to exercise the ole grey matter, well i will if its still the same grey matter afer they have defrosted me???? :confused:

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Question of the day



How is this true: .999999999 repeating = 1, I ask you how?

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Whirliegig wrote:Question of the day



How is this true: .999999999 repeating = 1, I ask you how?

It's not true; it just tends towards 1.
As for the previous question, consciousness is nothing to do with atoms either way.

Now I'll go and read what the philosophers say...

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todays is rather....hmmm...



What's the point of conceptual analysis when there's lexicography?


Before I consider what an answer might be, I have to work out what the question is actually asking. Infact, perhaps thats part of the answer...

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I've got one.

Does Planck Length make it possible for the hare to catch the tortoise?

I might post it on the site.
Or is it a science question?

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haha! thats Zeno's paradox - the frog jumping half its distance every time will never reach the opposite wall...

(ps - I used to have a cat called Zeno)

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I've submitted my question. Before it's accepted you have to answer a question to prove that you're not a bot - it was "What is the capital of France?" I put Paris. Or "F" - and was told that it was the incorrect answer. Serves me right for being a smart-arse :nono: .
Having re-submitted the correct answer they now have to vet my question to determine whether it's suitable.

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I shall follow your question's progress with interest.

any news on it yet?



meanwhile...

Question of the day



Is it fair to say that analytic philosophy of language has been more concerned with language as (actual) use and language as (actual) knowledge than with the problem of correct interpretation? When I say "the problem of correct interpretation" I mean the problem of giving good reasons to justify the claim that some interpretation (a paraphrase or a translation) is correct or the correct one.

I am aware that much has been written on the "indeterminacy of translation", but isn't it possible to give arguments for or against the correctness of a certain interpretation in spite of such "indeterminacy"? Where can I read about it?

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Having thought about the above question for a bit, I think a good example of this is the recent mis translation of the Iranian president - that Israel be wiped off the map - and the obvious argument that this case illustrates of the importance of a correct translation of the original words.

That the original phraseing was to do with time rather than place.


Lost in translation
Experts confirm that Iran's president did not call for Israel to be 'wiped off the map'. Reports that he did serve to strengthen western hawks.
http://www.guardian.co.uk/commentisfree/2006/jun/14/post155


( an apt example for this forum perhaps - but can we leave the greater politics out of this thread? :wave: :thumb: )


other less contentious examples I can think of are where words are adopted into other languages, simply because there is no translation, no existing word as good as - a gap in the market, as it were - Im thinking of the scottish word dreich for example - often used by national ( as in UK) weathercasters now . There just isnt a word in English which says dreich , the way dreich does.

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I must admit I'm finding this hard to follow.
Deeper thought regions of my brain seem to be inhibited recently.

If someone could dumb-down the questions a bit.....

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here's an interesting, more accessible one today ...



If beauty is in the eye of the beholder, and we decide what we think. Then why can't we make everything appear to be beautiful?

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Whirliegig wrote:here's an interesting, more accessible one today ...



If beauty is in the eye of the beholder, and we decide what we think. Then why can't we make everything appear to be beautiful?

We can, but it takes a lot of mind training. It's basically what Buddha taught.

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I wondered if there might be a buddhist answer to this question ...thanks TB.

the philosophers answer i thought was rather disappointing - that we cant. I was hoping for something more insightful along the lines of discussing the question more, and philosophising on the definition of beauty - but maybe thats just sidestepping giving a simple answer, by overcomplicating ?

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ThinBoy wrote:
Whirliegig wrote:here's an interesting, more accessible one today ...



If beauty is in the eye of the beholder, and we decide what we think. Then why can't we make everything appear to be beautiful?

We can, but it takes a lot of mind training. It's basically what Buddha taught.



Is it? :confused:

Didn't he teach that, yes, there IS suffering, no matter how hard we train our mind? That as long as we look at things from our ego-mind things would never look beautiful no matter how hard 'we' (from an ego-perspective) 'train' that mind, because from an ego-perspective things just cannot be made to look beautiful?

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Socha wrote:
ThinBoy wrote:
Whirliegig wrote:here's an interesting, more accessible one today ...



If beauty is in the eye of the beholder, and we decide what we think. Then why can't we make everything appear to be beautiful?

We can, but it takes a lot of mind training. It's basically what Buddha taught.



Is it? :confused:

Didn't he teach that, yes, there IS suffering, no matter how hard we train our mind? That as long as we look at things from our ego-mind things would never look beautiful no matter how hard 'we' (from an ego-perspective) 'train' that mind, because from an ego-perspective things just cannot be made to look beautiful?

Yes, that's right, I think. It's that mind that needs to be abandoned, because it creates all the suffering.
He taught what suffering is, what its causes are, that it can be abandoned, and how to abandon it - the Four Noble Truths. What he said in effect was that you need to change 'the eye of the beholder'.

I don't agree with Peter Lipton's answer.

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